Re: Latin -idus as from dH- too

----- Original Message -----
From: "fournet.arnaud" <fournet.arnaud@...>
To: <cybalist@yahoogroups.com>
Sent: Friday, March 14, 2008 3:59 AM
Subject: Re: Re: Re: [tied] Latin -idus as from dH- too


>
> ----- Original Message -----
> From: Patrick Ryan
<snip>

> =================
> It happens all the time with eastern and central PIE.
> > Glottal stop (H2) + C > voiced C.
> > Arnaud
>
> ***
> How about a couple of examples of that.
> ***
>
> I have already given :
> the root *bhlH2-k "beam"
> Pok 123
> LAtin ful-c-rum (unvoiced)
> gaulish bala:-k-on (unvoiced + long=
> Greek phalan-g-s (voiced)
> Sancrit *bhuri:z^au (voiced + long)

***

It is without precedent for a preceding glottal stop to voice anything.

Secondly, the *H2 does not come into contact with the fourth element of the
stem.

You are asking us to believe that *H2 voiced [k] over a syllable
boundary???????

Pokorny's explanation is far superior: -*k^ with a "parallel" -*(n)g^-
final.


***

> Torsten gave you an example two days ago.
> Door *?a?t
> Latin antae
> Sanscrit a:t
> Armenian dr-and- (voiced)
> Yenissei ?a?t
>
> Sanscrit is from H2n:-t-
> The laryngeal after *n fused with n-
> before it could voice the -t-
> LAtin anta instead of an-i-ta
> is coherent with an early fusion of
> n and ?
>
> This example is also **one** more
> proof that H1 is **not** glottal stop.

<snip>

***

And what language is *?a?t supposed to be? pre-PIE? If so, say so.

The root here is obvious (apparently to anyone but Arnaud): PIE *Ha(:)n-t-;
it means 'front'.

Your example is no proof of anything.

And why would forms with supposedly *H2 be any proof of the phonetic nature
of *H1???


Patrick