Re: Latin -idus as from dH- too

From: fournet.arnaud
Message: 55108
Date: 2008-03-13

----- Original Message -----
From: Patrick Ryan
*H1 is most likely a result of former *?.

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I restate that H1 is an unvoiced pharyngeal
(or unvoiced velar spirant)
Arnaud
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There is simply no credible phonological rationale for contact with [?]
_voicing_ a voiceless stop, let alone spirantizing it.

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It happens all the time with eastern and central PIE.
Glottal stop (H2) + C > voiced C.
Arnaud
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Secondly, the PIE stative suffix cannot be *-eH1 because any PIE morpheme
_must_ begin with a consonant. PIE has no *VC morpheme.

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Absurd.
Arnaud
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>
> What Olsen actually says is that -idus comes from *-eh1-tos
> (> *-ethos > -idus), where *-eh1- is the stative suffix. For
> instance cale:re "to be warm" => calidus.
>Miguel Carrasquer Vidal

> =======================
the -d- in the medio-passive adjectives in LAtin
is from -t?-
It has nothing to do with -t-o or -dh_H1

I don't believe in the laryngeal jump-over H-T > T-H

Arnaud
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