> > > >
> > > > There was the east-west trek, under whichever
> > > > leaders.
> > > >
> > > >
> > > > Torsten
> > >
> > > GK: Are you still maintaining that:
> > >
> > > (1) "Germanic proper... developed from Przeworsk"
> > > (2) "Przeworsk became the center of the Germanic languages
> > > in our perspective."
> > > (3) "the Grimm-shift took place during Przeworsk expansion
> > > into Germania" ?
> > >
> >
> > Yes, on all three counts.
> >
> >
> > Torsten
>
> ****GK: Fine. Then explain why
>
> (1) Jastorf+Silesian Celts+Bornholm and other
> islanders+ Pomeranians (=Przeworsk) creates
> "Germanic",
The Germanic language family, that is.
>WHILE
> (2) Jastorf+ Pomeranians+ Scandinavians (=Oksywie)
> DOES NOT, and
Para-Germanic?
>
> (3) Jastorf+ Pomeranians+ Milohrad c.+ Scythian
> Thrakoids (=Zarubintsi) DOES NOT, and
>
> (4) Jastorf+ Pomeranians + Geto/Dacian c. (=
> Poeneshti-Lukashovka) DOES NOT.
>
> ****
That's not really a problem.
Some ex-British colonies speak English, some don't.
Some ex-Roman colonies speak Romance, some don't.
If several heterogenous components come together linguistically, the
end result is that one of the components is favored, depending on
extra-linguistic circumstances.
What I instead thought might be a problem is this:
How would I explain that both Przeworsk and Wielbark, judging on their
successor cultures, speak Germanic? The solution I proposed, that the
elements of the Berig immigration (Goths/Jutes, ie. elements displaced
by the invasion of Scandinavia) spoke the language of the invaders
seemed counter-intuitive.
But, however, consider: Writing had just been introduced with the
invasion (and we know who the invention of writing was attributed to);
there had developed a written koine used in Runic, and, according to
Jordanes' De Getica, public education of the Gothic masses was so to
speak on the program. Under those circumstances it is not unlikely
that they were taught according to the new writing standard, even
though their spoken language was a different dialect.
Torsten