Re: Why no umlaut?

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Miguel Carrasquer Vidal <miguelc@...>
wrote:

>
> On Mon, 10 Mar 2008 09:55:40 -0000, "tgpedersen"
> <tgpedersen@...> wrote:
>
> >--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Miguel Carrasquer Vidal <miguelc@>
> >wrote:
> >>
> >> On Sat, 08 Mar 2008 10:40:20 -0000, "tgpedersen"
> >> <tgpedersen@> wrote:
> >>
> >> >However, the roots in Dutch haring "herring" and paling "eel"
> >> don't exist in Dutch. How come they have no umlaut then? Analogy?
> >>
> >> Haring is from P(W)Gmc. *hæ:ringaz, and there is no Umlaut
> >> on long vowels in Dutch. The same might apply to "paling",
> >> but since the word is only Dutch, it's hard to tell what the
> >> /a:/ is derived from.
> >>
> >So ha:ring is de-umlauted P(W)Gmc?
>
> No. Let me rephrase that:
>
> Haring is from PGmc. *hE:ringaz > PWGmc *hæ:ringaz >
> Istvaeonic *ha:ringa(z).

So PWGmc *æ: > Istvaeonic a: ? What other examples are there?

Cf. Est. heeringas.

Borrowed from PGmc.?

I thought it was PGmc. *e: > PNWGmc. *a:, ie. it was general for
Germanic outside of Gothic? What about German Heering then?


Torsten