This lengthy argumentation tries to demonstrate that
> Basque and Etruscan about 700 km away from one another and
> sharing about everything when it comes to phonological
> rules are to be considered *not* from a common ancestry.
No, it doesn't. If that's what you got out of it, you
really need to read it again, from the beginning, because
you plainly didn't understand a word that I wrote.
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I read them again
as advised.
"related languages that share the same
phonological developments are more closely related than
those that do not"
"if the existence of that common ancestor
*could* be demonstrated, it wouldn't matter whether
Basque and Etruscan shared phonological developments."
So
What am I supposed to understand ?
I consider
these statements are obviously conflicting.
I agree with Statement 1
I think Statement 2 is stupid.
Arnaud
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