Re[4]: [tied] Can relationships between languages be determined afte

At 12:18:19 AM on Thursday, January 31, 2008, Rick McCallister wrote:

> Why did filius > fitz in Anglo-Norman
> but fides > faith (in Engiish)
> I imagine the trajetories were similar
> filius > fils > /fic/

/fi:lius/ > /filjUs/ > /fil^ts/ > /fits/ > /fis/ (later OFr)

Anglo-Norman shows mostly /fil^ts/ and /fits/, as I recall.

> fides > fidz > /fic/ > /fiϸ/

/fidem/ > /fede/ > /feiþ/ > /foi/ > /fwE/ (later OFr)

English evidently borrowed it at the /feiþ/ stage (or
perhaps a little earlier, with similar development).

> so why didn't fitz go the extra step?

Brian