Re: IS PIE * DERU EXCLUSIVELY INDO-EUROPEAN ?

You have your example of PIE *t(h) = PS *dh in *t(h)aHw- and dhahab.

There is no *b only *p?, and it is the final element of this word. It
naturally becomes PIE*b but because this phone was unwelcome, most
frequently it was modified to *bh though true *bh has a different
predecessor: *p?w; it is probably as a reduction of this that it shows up as
*w occasionally.
==========
Tsalam? t?ob

You discussing a loan-word in the first place,
I don't understand you phonetic explanations :
voiced feature is glottalized is aspirated voiced is spirant.

Arnaud
=================

As for emphatic, I believe they are related to retroflex articulations in
Indian through Dravidian.
==========
What do you mean ?
PIE Indian have developped retroflex out of emphatic ??

==========
The modern Arabic pronunciation is certainly not
glottalized.
======
True
==========
There is no reason to assume that the Ethiopian articulation is original.
Patrick
=========
Most experts in this field believe so.
And I agree with these experts.

The main obvious reason is :
Glottalized can become emphatic, not the reverse.
And glottalized can be become voiced,
the reverse is rarer but possible.

Arnaud
=========