> This hypothesis makes sense if
> the "Belgians" can be
identified by some criteria
> that make them different from the "p-celt
Gauls"
> in phonetic or lexical data.
Torsten wrote :
You just provided one
yourself: Capitals in -u, ethnonyms in -is.
A.F : no
:
What I previously wrote was :
First :
Ethnonyms end with standard nominative plural :
-i
CApitals end with ablative locative plural :
-is
Provinces end with neutral accusative singular : -u
or -o
Next :
This feature (just as all the rest) does not follow
this supposed Belgian/Gaulish division.
Examples of Cities :
So called "Belgians" :
Arra-S < Atrebat-is (200 km north from
Paris)
Reim-S < Rem-is (100 km east from
Paris)
Soisson-S < Suesson-is (100 km north from
Paris)
PAri-S < PAris-iS
Anger-S < Andecav-is (300 km south-west from
PAris)
Poitier-S < Pictav-is (300 km south from
Paris)
Limoges < Lemovic-is (500 km south from
PAris)
As regards this structure, there is no division to
be made between north/east/West/south
Basically it works everywhere in the same
way.
Apart from Cesar's affirmation of a
dichotomy,
What kind of data do you have to support this
dichotomy ?
your search for "Belgians" sounds no better than
the search for "Pelasgians",
To be frank, It sounds worse,
We are sure that Greek language and Greek
place-names provide enough coherent stuff
to make the substrate hypothesis
undoubtable.
In the case of these Belgians, I must restate that
I cannot see anything
neither in languages nor in place-names that can be
labelled "enough coherent stuff".
One can tell a place-name of Saxon origin from a
place-name of Norse origin in Northern France
but one can't find a place-name of "Belgian" origin
where "they" should be.
Absurd sounds like the right word to describe this
"Belgian" hypothesis.