Re: No Verner in Gothic verbs?

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Piotr Gasiorowski <gpiotr@...> wrote:

>
> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "tgpedersen" <tgpedersen@> wrote:
>
> > Verner doesn't seem to have applied in Gothic verbs, but it has
> > in other Gothic words. Verner applies everywhere in North and
> > West Germanic languages. It almost seems like there was no stress
> > in Gothic verbs.
>
> Had that been the case, Vernerian voicing would have thrived in
> Gothic verbs, as VL normally operated between _unaccented_
> syllables. We have examples of VL in derived verbs like causative
> <frawardjan> (vs. basic <frawaírþan>), <sandjan> or <hazjan> (though
> many causatives were remodelled if analogy was possible),

All your examples contain voicing before voiced -j-. But cf. nasjan etc.

> and there are even cler, if sporadic, traces of paradigmatic
> alternations in the strong verb system, e.g. sle:pan : gasaízle:p.

You mean sle:pan : saísle:p/saízle:p (Wright has both forms).

In general:
If the outcome is the result of a choice between two types of verb
stem, sporadic variations is exactly what you'd expect.

And you haven't cast reasonable doubt on the claim that given the two
stress patterns for verbs, Grimm and Verner would produce two
paradigms for those verb stems they affected.



Torsten