From: stlatos
Message: 48447
Date: 2007-05-04
--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Jens Elmegård Rasmussen <elme@...> wrote:
>
> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "stlatos" <stlatos@> wrote:
>
> > Is there any specific reason you reconstruct *stew(&)-ro-?
>
> It's based on Ved. sthávira-, although I fail to understand the full
> allomorphy. I bracket the laryngeal because it may have been lost in
> the particular kind of IE from which Sem. *Tawr- was borrowed.
I've already discussed my derivation for sthávira-. More
specifically, why would it have been lost in PIE? Is your
reconstruction for a variety of dialects (some of them losing it as
the ancestors of Baltic, Iranian, Germanic)? Is there any reason for
a vowel instead of a syllabic C at this time?