From: Piotr Gasiorowski
Message: 47950
Date: 2007-03-18
> Wouldn't *o > o: > a:? Greek has analogy with *A valid point, but wouldn't *proh3- have gone to *pra:-, had the
> pYròxW > pró (I'd say many branches had final a(:)x >
> a(:) and o(:)xW > o(:)).
>>> However, -idus is not from *-e-h1- + -to-.There are Greek words short vowels possibly reflecting older forms:
>> There's
>>> no reason for the h1 to disappear
>> Why not?
>
> Well, it didn't in your other examples. If you're
> bringing analogy into play I can't make a certain case
> against it based only on that.
>> vi:vidus : ji:vatHa-The preaspiration rule is an old change, heavily layered over by the
>
> I've seen no evidence that *exYt > etH > atH in
> Sanskrit. They are based on the same root, but based
> on other changes in Indic I'd say it's from
> * gWixWwa+xto+ 'given / possessed of (long) life' so
> the *axt > atH is regular.
>
> I'm not sure what you would predict for denta:tus,
> cornu:tus (that is, you didn't give any examples of
> xtV) so I'll wait before saying more.
> I'd say stative verbs in *-èxY+ had adj. inIn Latin they systematically correspond to adjestives in -idus (albeo: :
> *-(e)xYdó+ meaning 'being'. So *xYruudhexYó+ >
> *xYruudheyó+ 'red', *xYruudh(e)xYdó+ 'being red,
> blushing' >
> rubeus, OCS ryz^dI; and Early Irish ruidiud 'blush'