On 2007-03-16 07:23, mkelkar2003 wrote:
> "Additionally, Graeco-Aryan isoglosses seem suggestive that Greek and
> Indo-Iranian may have shared a common homeland for awhile after the
> splitting of the other IE branches. Such a homeland could be
> northwestern India (which is preferred by proponents of the OIT)"
Isoglosses may look "suggestive" but aren't probative. Lots of
"isoglosses" common to Greek and Indo-Iranian are shared retentions and
therefore have no value as evidence of a close relationship. Others
(such as Grassmann's Law in Indic and Greek) are independent
developments. What shared _innovations_ support this Graeco-Iranian
grouping? At the very best, there may have been an areal connection
between Indo-Iranian and Greek, but why involving NW India, of all places?
Piotr