> I. I think that your supposition
>
> > > b) PIE *sru-ma > Latin Roma ? 'Directly-from-PIE' or 'via
> > > Etruscan'? :)
>
> deserved the above sign.
>
> If I'm wrong, you can prove this trying to derive it correctly,
> either via PIE->Etruscan->Latin either directly PIE->Latin...
> But until than , please allow me to use the sign :) for such an
> idea..
Beekes:
"
22. The Umbrians. Pliny (3, 112) states that the Etruscans conquered
300 cities from the Umbrians (Trecenta eorum oppida Tusci debellasse
reperiuntur.). This clearly refers to the `Landnahme'. This
statement is confirmed by the river Umbro (mod. Ombrone), which
flows in its full length in Etruscan territory. The river will have
given its name to the people, or vice versa. Anyhow, the river will
have flowed in Umbrian territory; so the Etruscans must have pushed
the Umbrians out.
"
which of course not a derivation, but it does make it likely that
the sequence was Umbrian -> Etruscan -> Latin
Torsten