From: Mate Kapović
Message: 47536
Date: 2007-02-20
> On Mon, 19 Feb 2007 18:27:32 +0100 (CET), Mate KapovićWell, there is not much to tell except that the archaic dialects have
> <mkapovic@...> wrote:
>
>>On Pon, veljača 19, 2007 12:26 am, Miguel Carrasquer Vidal reče:
>>> We have (based on the Russian data) four types:
>>>
>>> a.p. a:
>>> gla"dUkU, gla"dUko, gla"dUka
>>> gla"dUkUjI, gla"dUkoje, gla"dUkaja
>>>
>>> a.p. a/b:
>>> gotóvU, gotóvo, gotóva
>>> gotóvUjI, gotóvoje, gotóvaja
>>>
>>> a.p. b:
>>> teNz^élU, teNz^eló, teNz^elá
>>> teNz^élUjI, teNz^éloje, teNz^élaja
>>>
>>> a.p. c:
>>> ve``selU, ve``selo, veselá
>>> vesélUjI, veséloje, vesélaja
>>
>>The latter is not archaic, cf. Croat. dial. veselî. There is no reason
>> for
>>polysyllabic stems to behave any different than monosyllabic ones.
>
> Can you tell me more about the Croatian forms?
> I was underStand. Croat. is indeed ve``seo, -la, -lo, -li: but that is innovative.
> the impression that South Slavic in general had retracted
> the accent in a.p. c adjectives (I checked and found Bulg.
> vésel, SCr ve``seo, ve``sela, Svn. vese^l).
> BTW, what books can you recommend on South SlavicI'm sure you've seen Stankiewicz's 1993 book (Acc. patterns in Slavic
> [descriptive] accentology in general (and Croatian in
> particular)?
>>> Assigning +Re to the a.p. c forms here would have resultedgotóvoje is like gotóvo - the a. p. b accent in ind. forms is on the last
>>> in *veselÚjI, *veselóje, *veselája, which is incorrect.
>>
>>That's why you cannot just look at Russian .-)
>>
>>> The
>>> explanation through Stang's law works here, which of course
>>> doesn't make up for the fact that it *doesn't* for the
>>> "standard" 2-syllabic mobile adjectives, and that there's
>>> still no contraction in Russian.
>>>
>>> So what is going here? I have no good explanation for
>>> Russian vesëlyj, vesëlaja either.
>>
>>It's analogical after a. p. b. In polysyllabic stems, Russian eliminates
>>the end-stress.
>>
>>[...]
>>
>>Veséloje is out of the picture and gotóvoje is exactly the same thing as
>>béloje the only difference being that the stem has two syllables.
>
> Hmm, I wonder if it's as simple as that... Why did Dybo's
> law work in *go'tovo[je] > goto'vo[je], and in *be^'lo >
> be^lo', but not in be^'loje? Is goto'voje analogical after
> teNz^e'loje and vese'loje too?
> *gotóvoje is not problematic I think since it yields the result which isidentical to *béloje with the retraction or no Dybo.