From: mandicdavid
Message: 47021
Date: 2007-01-19
>century?
> On Sri, sijeèanj 17, 2007 5:40 pm, mandicdavid reèe:
>
> > What makes you think the Meillet's law operated in the 8th
>that
> I didn't say that. However, if you relate Meillet's Law to the
> disappearance of acute in unstressed vowels, there is some evidence
> this was posterior to liquid metathesis (cf. Holzers paper on IWoBA1).
> > Slavic populations had already been dispersed over the East ofEurope
> > by that time (they had reached the Adriatic coast by thebeginning of
> > the 7th ct); can a process like the Meillet's law spread oversuch a
> > vast territory?in all
>
> Well, Dybo's Law was also probably post-migrational and it operated
> or most dialects.Why is it considered to be post-migrational? If it occurred in, say,
> > I meant it may have been earlier. If the laryngeal existed at thatpreserved,
> > time (e.g. a glottal stop) in all syllables, and was subsequently
> > lost in unstressed position, it would have dissapeared in a.p. c
> > stems as well. In a.p. a, on the other hand, it would be
> > and eventually yield the rising tone.laryngeal or
>
> Sure, but there are a lot of acutes in Slavic which are not
> Winter-derived... In that cases, you would have to assume aninserted
> laryngeal/glottal stop in vrddhis like *ty´´kati, which seemsimpossible,
> or you'd have to have the acute as well as the laryngeal.I agree. That would mean all vrddhis were circumflex, and they
>