From: mcarrasquer
Message: 47017
Date: 2007-01-18
>of a
> On Sri, sijeèanj 17, 2007 11:11 pm, mcarrasquer reèe:
> > Just a thought, before I forget.
> >
> > Could Slavic nogá "foot, leg" and no``gUtI "nail" be split forms
> > common paradigm?h1nésos and
> >
> > We could have:
> > N. *h3nógh(W)-o:t-s,
> > A. *h3nógh(W)-ut-m.
> >
> > [Perhaps an oblique featuring /s/, like in *méh1no:ts, *m(e)
> > the ptc. in *-wo:ts, *-usos]. The N. regularly gives Balto-SlavicSlavic
> > *nagó:ts[*] > Slavic nogá:, while the A. yields BS *nágutiN >
> > no``gUtI.Slavic
> >
> > [*] Which reminds me: I believe there was a very early Balto-
> > soundlaw whereby a long vowel (not contracted, not laryngeal) inthe
> > ending attracted the stress. That explains why PD and AD nouns(Early)
> > consistently have an oxytone Nsg. (classical example *h2ák^mo:n >
> > akmuõ), and why the i- and u-stem (mobile) Lsg. is oxytone in
> > Slavic (from PIE *-e:i and *-e:u/*-o:u).(Slavic
> >
> > The present tense 1sg. ending *-o: does not attract the stress
> > be``roN), which would, alas, be yet another argument against *-o:(u)
> > and in favour of *-oh3.Slavic
> >
> > This would also resolve the discussion we had some time ago
> > about "mother": whether PIE had *máh2tV:r or *mah2té:r, Balto-
> > surely had *maHté:r (c.q. *maHté~), which subsequently becameMy point is that, even before Pedersen's law (i.e. the transfer of
> > *má:te:r/*má:te~ after Hirt's law.
>
> How do you figure that? I'm not sure I get your point...