Re: Question related to the Greek k-perfect

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "alexandru_mg3" <alexandru_mg3@...>
wrote:

>
> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "alexandru_mg3" <alexandru_mg3@>
> wrote:
> >
> > Could somebody tell me if the Greek k-perfect is an internal Greek
> > construction or is originated from PIE times?
> > What the inner k-particle could mean if from PIE?
> > And the lead-in vowel -a that characterized the set of its endings?
> > Also : is the reduplication of the root always mandatory ?
> > Thanks a lot,
> > Marius
> >
>
> Meanwhile I could find that :
>
> a) Tocharian /ta:ka:/ 'I was' (that seems to have lost a sibilant /(s)
> ta:ka:/ , based on his imperatve form /pa:sta:k/ could be cognate
> with the Old Greek esta:ka: 'I stand' (it's true that there is no re-
> duplication in the Tocharian form, so at least I ould answer to:
>
> > : is the reduplication of the root always mandatory ?
> Answer: (based on Tocharian the answer is ) No, in case of a 'a
> Common PIE k-tense')
>
> b) another Tocharian k-verbal-form is /käl-k/ 'he went' (see Skt.
> carati)
>
> So this k-verbal-particle seems to appear in Tocharian too, not only
> in the Greek k-Perfect.
>
> So, I need to ask you again:
>
> > What the inner k-particle could mean?
>
> Thanks for your help,

Some think (Miguel is one) there was an alternation *-k-/*-x# (*-h2),
ie *k becomes *h2 in auslaut.
That would relate the Greek k-perfect to the Lithuanian preterite
3sg -o (<- *-ax) and Latin imperfect era- and -ba- (<- *-bhw-ax-)
(with a later addition of personal endings). The -ax- suffix is
known also as a factitive suffix (stems in -a:).
Personally I think this preterite started as an uninflected participle
in *-ak, with the subject in either dative or instrumental, and that
as it began to be construed with subjects in nominative, personal
endings were added. I also think this suffix is identical to the
fsg., npl., diminutive *-ak (-> *-ax), so therefore: "To/by X there
is a lot of / a mass of V" ie "X V'ed".


Torsten