Re: Question related to the Greek k-perfect

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "alexandru_mg3" <alexandru_mg3@...>
wrote:

>
> Could somebody tell me if the Greek k-perfect is an internal Greek
> construction or is originated from PIE times?
> What the inner k-particle could mean if from PIE?
> And the lead-in vowel -a that characterized the set of its endings?
> Also : is the reduplication of the root always mandatory ?
> Thanks a lot,
> Marius
>

Meanwhile I could find that :

a) Tocharian /ta:ka:/ 'I was' (that seems to have lost a sibilant /(s)
ta:ka:/ , based on his imperatve form /pa:sta:k/ could be cognate
with the Old Greek esta:ka: 'I stand' (it's true that there is no re-
duplication in the Tocharian form, so at least I ould answer to:

> : is the reduplication of the root always mandatory ?

Answer: (based on Tocharian the answer is ) No, in case of a 'a
Common PIE k-tense')

b) another Tocharian k-verbal-form is /käl-k/ 'he went' (see Skt.
carati)

So this k-verbal-particle seems to appear in Tocharian too, not only
in the Greek k-Perfect.

So, I need to ask you again:

> What the inner k-particle could mean?

Thanks for your help,
Marius