[tied] Re: Prenasalization, not ejectives cause of Winter's law?

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "Patrick Ryan" <proto-language@...>
wrote:

>
> ***
>
> Torsten, your idiosyncratic way of transcribing these sounds only

means that no one has any idea what you are getting at.

>
> H is frequently used for Arabic dotted h.
>
> ¿ is its voiced counterpart.
>
> There are also the voiced (gh) and unvoiced (kh) velar fricatives.
>
> Patrick
> ***

The problem is I don't know any Semitic language, or I would have
been able to identify them from the examples Møller provides.
Hope you can make sense of them. If Joao says the sound I write
using Møller's notation as Y. is gH, then that must be it.


Torsten