Another PIE origin theory

This may all be for the rubbish bin, but since I'm not the best
judge of this, I'll share the idea.

Thousands of years, maybe 2 thousand or 3, before PIE as we know it
existed, its ancestor lived in eastern Anatolia. This ancestor may
also have been the ancestor of Minoan (judging by what can be
deduced from the grammar of Linear A) and of Etruscan, as well as
Pelasgian if it is not Indo-European. There is a chance that it was
also related distantly to Kartvelian, however this might just be due
to borrowings between the two in a Sprachbunde.

Then, the Semites arrived. They were around long enough that a few
Semitic words got into this language, but the speakers of the
language soon went seperate ways. The Minoans and Etruscans went
east (and the Pelasgians?) while another group went north over the
Caucasus mountains.

After this, the group that went north met with and joined part of an
Uralic culture. After this, everything goes as usual with the Kugan
ideas.

Myself, I can't say I'm completely comfortable with the idea.
However, I don't want my emotions to have too much of a basis in
judging it. What do you think?

I prefer to think of PIE as closer to Uralic... just with an
adstratum from some pseudo-Caucasian tongue. It's just that there
are some discomforting similarities to some Semitic traditions.

The only other thought I can give with ease is that some of the stuf
we ascribe to PIE is actually not Indo-European, but just widely
diffused borrowings. Speaking of which, how can one tell those apart?