From: Joao S. Lopes
Message: 45868
Date: 2006-08-28
Thank you, Brian.
Yes, I thought it would be a dissimilation - that was my first idea (I just wasn't sure whether and to what extent this was common in Spanish). Yet, as far as the Italian form is concerned, my dictionary of Italian lists two: <albero> and <arbore>. Does that reflect dialectal differences within Italian (an interdialectal borrowing), later influence of Medieval Latin or a re-borrowing from another Romance source?
How common, or how productive, is/was metathesis in Spanish?
Considering Miguel's Vasco-Afrasian hypothesis and the dubious etymology of "Arbor", I accidentally found a funny parallel in Afro-Asiatic *(?a-)rVwVy- "tree" :-) I guess this would be a pretty heretical thought for many Cybalisters ;-)
Thanks for any comments and help in advance,
Best,
P.
----- Original Message ----
From: Brian M. Scott <BMScott@... net>
To: Petr Hrubis <cybalist@... s.com>
Sent: Monday, 28 August, 2006 12:52:51 AM
Subject: Re[2]: [tied] Re: Lat. "Arbor"
>At 12:27:30 PM on Sunday, August 27, 2006, Petr Hrubis
>wrote:
>
>> Now, could somebody possibly describe the regular
>> phonological changes for me that lead to the Spanish
>> "arbol", please?
>
>It's not a regular change: in Spanish the second /r/ of
>Latin <arbor> was dissimilated to /l/. Dissimilation also
>occurred in Italian <albero>, but it affected the first /r/
>instead.
>
>Brian
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