Re: [tied] Re: kentum/satem: why Lithuanian kg before e/i

From: Joao S. Lopes
Message: 45652
Date: 2006-08-08

But theses changes are frequently symmetric. English palatalized g-, and also k-. I know this is not a obrigatory law, but the assymmetry seems odd.
It leads me to a question: is Satem a monophyletic group, or an independent evolution?
And I'd add to this group Greek, that is kentum, but palatalized labio-velars: kWo->po, but kWe>kYe>c^e>te


Joao SL

Piotr Gasiorowski <gpiotr@...> escreveu:
On 2006-08-08 17:04, Joao S. Lopes wrote:

> Why labio-velars before palatal vowels in Baltic didnt develop into
> palatals, like other satem languages (cf. Slavic k/c^, Indo-Iranian
> k/c^, but Baltic k)?

Why did PGmc. *Ge-, *ke- become Eng. ye-, che- but German ge-, ke-? Why
do we have French cent /sa~/ but Sardinian kentu? Perhaps because the
palatalisation of velars before front vowels, though in general very
likely, is not inevitable.

Piotr


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