> This might be the way to explain the correspondence between
> Danish stød and Swedish tone 1 (rising tone). What do you
> think?
>
BTW what was this thing about Kortlandt deriving just about
evertything prosodic in IE. incl. Danish stød in one theory.
Someone mentioned it here, but didn't believe it. Does anyone
have a reference (cybalist and elsewhere)?
Torsten
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