Re: [tied] Re: Latin barba in disaccord with Grimm's Law?

--- tgpedersen <tgpedersen@...> wrote:

> Well, let me be more specific: If you want to claim
> sporadic change,
> that is if some phonetic context I would like there
> to be an
> explanation of why that is so.

Since o>a/_w I'd call it dissimilation. If you want
a reason why this and not o>u, a>o/_w, etc., I can't
help you. Why it's sporadic? I don't know that
either.

> > > The existence of both foveo:
> > > "warm" and
> > > faveo: "cherish" in Latin, plus Ernout-Meillet's
> > > remark that words
> > > with /a/ are 'mots populaires' makes me think
> there
> > > must be at least
> > > one independent source (substrate? adstrate?
> > > sociolect?) for Latin
> > > words with /a/.
> >
> > Well, from Latin to Vulgar Latin doesn't need
> much
> > of an explanation.
>
> But that remark does.

Languages change over time. If the rich and
educated correct their writing by looking at the
language of the past there's nothing unusual if the
common people make inscriptions and develop languages
showing different (later) sound changes.


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