Re: [tied] Re: Black Athena: The Afroasiatic RootsofClassicalCivili

>>>> -Definite article
>
>>> Greek had the definite article 1500 BC. This is a bit
>>> earlier than the contact you seem to suggest. At least a
>>> thousand years earlier.
>
>> The earliest forms of greek before ca 1000 BC (Myceanean
>> and Homeric) did not have definite article. Egyptian
>> developed definitea article around 1500 BC.
>
> Out of a demonstrative pronoun. This is also the source in
> Greek. The development seems to be rather common. (Does
> anyone know of a definite article that definitely does *not*
> have such a source?)

You mean def art which do not come from _demonstrative_ pronouns?
I believe I have seen cases of personal and poss pronouns developing
into definite article but I can't remember the exact cases now. Let me
know if you want me to try to dig them up.

all the best,

H