The Germanic verb *fleuhan ("flee") would be expected to go back to PIE *pleuk-, would it not? If so, what does *fleugan ("fly") go back to? A *pleugh- would contain the sequence p..gh which is not tolerated in PIE verb phonology (i.e. voiceless plosive followed by voiced aspirated plosive). One would think then that *fleugan also goes back to PIE *pleuk-, with Germanic -g- imported from the past plural and participle where it would be regular from *k by Verner's Law. So are *fleuhan and *fleugan originally one and the same verb? Why then did all Germanic languages develop two different verbs with different meanings from the same root, if it was originally one root? Or could there have been a sequence p..gh in PIE?
Andrew