Re: [tied] Latin barba in disaccord with Grimm's Law?

From: Joao S. Lopes
Message: 45060
Date: 2006-06-23

So, why not
febris > bebris
fibula > bibula
faber > baber
faba >baba


Mate Kapoviæ <mkapovic@...> escreveu:
On Pet, lipanj 23, 2006 5:31 am, junk554 reèe:
> --- In, Piotr Gasiorowski wrote:
>> On 2006-06-19 06:32, junk554 wrote:
>> > Why does barba, the Latin word for beard, not begin with an f?
>> > According to the First Sound Shift or Grimm's Law, Indo-European bh-
>> > became f- in Latin and b- in Germanic.
>> No. Grimm's Law says nothing about Latin. It only says PIE *bH became
>> Germanic *B, so if the PIE prototype was *bHardhah2, everything is all
>> right on the Germanic side. If, on the other hand, it was *bardHah2,
>> then the Latin reflex is OK and we have what looks like a failure of
>> Grimm's Law. Balto-Slavic *b- in this word proves nothing either way,
> so
>> it's ultimately a question of Latin vs. Germanic. Sice PIE *b is rare
>> and there are a few possible (if rare) examples of sporadic
> Grassmannian
>> dissimilation in Latin, the reconstruction *bHardHah2 is generally
> given
>> preference.
>> Piotr
> Please excuse my incompetence for attributing Grimm's Law to the
> changing of PIE <*bh> to Latin . What I was wondering, and still am,
> is the reason for the unexpected initial in Latin , a cognate
> of English .

Assimilation of *farba to barba, *f-b > b-b.


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