Re: [tied] Verner's Law (Germanic)

From: Andrew Jarrette
Message: 44485
Date: 2006-05-05

Piotr Gasiorowski <gpiotr@...> wrote:

OE -s is preserved in the nom.pl. of thematic masculines (which was
originally *-o:s-es > PGmc. *-o:ziz) and the thematic gen.sg.
(originally *-oso > PGmc. *-aza), but not in the reflexes of *-os, *-is,
*-us, etc., where it became PGmc. -z and was dropped at stage (1).

Piotr
-----------
 
Yes, but I have a further question: did the same devoicing occur in OHG, to account for its genitive singular (a-stems) in -es?  And why does it have -e- if this ending is truly from *-oso?  And if such devoicing did not occur in ON (to explain the nom./acc. pl. ending -ar), why doesn't ON have -r as the genitive singular ending of a-stems instead of -s?  I thought the more accepted explanation for the pan-Germanic genitive singular of a-stems was that it is pronominal in origin, from *-eso, on the analogy of *teso, *kWeso, forms of the genitive singular of *so and *kwis/kwos (beside *tosjo, *kWosjo and others).
 
Andrew



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