Re: PIE Word Formation Q&A (1)

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Jens Elmegård Rasmussen <elme@...> wrote:

>
> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "Rob" <magwich78@> wrote:
>
> [JER:]
> > > It looks like the result of a reinterpretation of the ablaut of
> stems
> > > in -nt- (-vant-/-mant-): Where weak cases have -at- (-vat-/-mat-),
> > > strong cases have -ant- (-vant-/-mant-) with apparent n-insertion.
>
> > Why would such a reinterpretation be applied to s-stems?
>
> The us-participle has voc. cákr.vas, dat.pl. cakr.vádbhyas,
> instr.pl. cakr.vádbhis. Likewise, stems in -vant form voc. -vas,
> dat.pl. -vadbhyas, -vadbhis (and -mant forms -mas, -madbhyas,
> -madbhis). The two sets also share the ntr.sg. in -vat, -mat. Thus,
> there is very plainly an association between s- stems and nt-stems
> in Indic.

I was under the impression that the Indic us-participle descended from
IE *-wot-. If so, then there would not seem to be any connection
between the that participle and s-stems. Is that not correct?

- Rob