[tied] Re: PIE Word Formation (1)

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Piotr Gasiorowski <gpiotr@...> wrote:

>
> On 2006-04-04 17:50, Rob wrote:
>
> > That's my point. Your question seems to beg another question -- is
> > the pattern there?
>
> The examples given so far should suffice. The value *e was also
> originally found before the voiceless laryngeals *h1 and *h2, hence
> *newah2 = *//newe-h2//. Nouns generalised *-o- already in the
> protolanguage (except in the vocative and before *h2), but verbs and
> pronouns follow the rule very nicely, cf. acc.m. *to-m, nom./acc.n.
> *to-d, nom.pl.m. *to-i, but coll. *ta-h2, gen. *te-so, instr.
> *te-h1, etc.

I am sorry, but they do not suffice for me. On another note, isn't
there another genitive form *tosyo for that demonstrative root?

> > Are you saying that the stem-final position (wherever that may be)
> > is universally special? That its specialness applies
> > cross-linguistically? I don't mean to sound incredulous here -- I
> > would just like some further clarification.
>
> The _final_ position is cross-linguistically special. Whether things
> are special phrase-finally, word-finally or stem-finally is a
> language-specific choice.

While I can readily see how word-final and/or phrase-final position
can be special in languages, I'm having a harder time seeing that case
with stem-final position. Is there any conclusive evidence for the
latter?

- Rob