[tied] Re: PIE Word Formation (2)

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "aquila_grande" <aquila_grande@...>
wrote:

>
> For example: Why propose that all -u is the reduction or an -ew and
> all -i the reduction of an -ei, when there ideed exist cases of -u
> and -i without any ablaut althernation i/ei and u/eu.

IMO, *ei and *eu are the result of stressing *i and *u, rather than *i
and *u being the zero-grade of *ei and *eu. But that's just me.

> And why propose that all -a has the originin an h2 + an -e?, in cases
> where the h2 has left no other trace anywhere?

I think there have been discussions of some words where *a couldn't
come from *h2e because the accents in Baltic and Slavic don't work
right. IIRC, the word for salt is an example.

> I think this standard consept about the original IE phonologyis far
> too schematic.

I can't see PIE having less than 3 vowels. Even then 4 makes more sense.