[tied] Re: PIE Word Formation (2)

I am scheptical about the idea that IE originally had only one wovel.


For example: Why propose that all -u is the reduction or an -ew and
all -i the reduction of an -ei, when there ideed exist cases of -u
and -i without any ablaut althernation i/ei and u/eu.

And also in many cases where such an ablaut exist, the original state
could have been a plain -i or -u, and the ablaut been a result from
analogy.



And why propose that all -a has the originin an h2 + an -e?, in cases
where the h2 has left no other trace anywhere?


I think this standard consept about the original IE phonologyis far
too schematic.