Re: [tied] Greek labiovelars

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Miguel Carrasquer <mcv@...> wrote:

>
> On Tue, 21 Mar 2006 16:16:07 -0500, andrew jarrette
> <jarretteandrew@...> wrote:
>
> >This is very interesting, as it provides an example of the

regular change of an

> >originally palatal plosive to a velar plosive -- which is what

classical IE

> >theory asks us to believe happened in the case of western IE

languages like

> >Greek, Latin, Germanic, and Celtic. So perhaps the palatal

plosives were

> >indeed original, and not a special development of original velars

in eastern

> >IE languages (excluding Tocharian)? Egyptian seems to prove that

it is possible,

> >if Miguel Vidal's ideas are the correct interpretation.
>
> They're not my ideas. I was told it's the standard
> interpretation of the facts among Arabists.
>

And it's not explainable as paradigm regularisation (eg. dz^/g)?


Torsten