Re: [tied] Greek labiovelars

On Tue, 21 Mar 2006 16:16:07 -0500, andrew jarrette
<jarretteandrew@...> wrote:

>This is very interesting, as it provides an example of the regular change of an
>originally palatal plosive to a velar plosive -- which is what classical IE
>theory asks us to believe happened in the case of western IE languages like
>Greek, Latin, Germanic, and Celtic. So perhaps the palatal plosives were
>indeed original, and not a special development of original velars in eastern
>IE languages (excluding Tocharian)? Egyptian seems to prove that it is possible,
>if Miguel Vidal's ideas are the correct interpretation.

They're not my ideas. I was told it's the standard
interpretation of the facts among Arabists.

=======================
Miguel Carrasquer Vidal
mcv@...