Re: [tied] Re: Celtic n (was: Greek labiovelars)

--- "Anders R. Joergensen" <ollga_loudec@...>
wrote:

> How do you explain the British Celtic reflex of
> *menm- then?
> Wouldn't we have to posit ablaut *mn.m- ~ *menm-
> then? You don't
> assume that *n. gave *en in British Celtic, do you?

No; looks like you're right. I'm not sure how to
explain mall now (possibly menlo>mel~lo>me~llo?).


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