[tied] Re: Celtic n (was: Greek labiovelars)

From: Anders R. Joergensen
Message: 43925
Date: 2006-03-19

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Sean Whalen <stlatos@...> wrote:
> --- "Anders R. Joergensen" <ollga_loudec@...>
> wrote:
> > --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Sean Whalen
> > <stlatos@> wrote:
>
> > > e(>e~?)>a between N-N in same syllable
> >
> > Would OIr. menme (n) 'intelligence, act of thinking'
> > be a counter-
> > example? PCelt. *menmen-, also MW mynw, Bret. meno.
>
> Possibly, but not if the order is:
>
> e > e~ between N-N in same syllable
> n. > en
> e > e~ before nd etc.
> e~ > a
>
> and *mn.mn.- > *menmen- (as *h1n.mn.- > *h2anmen- in
> my rules) since many words apparently have the 0-grade
> generalized in Celtic (*n.kYu- not *nekYu- for
> example).

How do you explain the British Celtic reflex of *menm- then?
Wouldn't we have to posit ablaut *mn.m- ~ *menm- then? You don't
assume that *n. gave *en in British Celtic, do you?

Anders