From: tgpedersen
Message: 43536
Date: 2006-02-23
>(see
> On 2006-02-21 16:51, alexandru_mg3 wrote:
>
> > Why to exclude a PIE *melk(') with k(') for the Germanic words
> > Slavic *melk-o) ?may
>
> Because of Grimm's Law. PIE *k(^) becomes Germanic *x (h), which
> then become *g if originally preceded by an unaccented syllable.For
> example, something like *mélko- would have become PGmc. *melxa-,and
> something like *ml.k(^)ó- would have become PGmc. *mulga-. Theactually
> attested Germanic forms (*melk-/*mulk-) perfectly match Lat.mulgeo:,
> Gk. amelgo: and Skt. {mr.j-}, as well as the Slavic root *melz-and
> Lith. mélz^-/mi`lz^- 'to milk'; it's the Slavic noun *melko thatis the
> odd man out, most plausibly explained as a loan from a non-satemdialect
> with *k from *g^. Only Germanic meets that description, and what'smore,
> Germanic has just the right noun with the right meaning. ThatAre you sure Verner applies in this case? I can't think of another
> practically clinches the case.
>