Andrew Sihler is fond of the idea that Latin tendere and -fendere (defendere, offendere) reflect IE *tnje- and *gwhnje- and are therefore correspondent to Greek tein� and thein�. This is very attractive, but what is the likelihood that /nj/ would become /nd/? It would seem to be a development unique to Latin and phonologically unlikely. But then why do these verbs have the -d-? Are there similar verbs or nouns with *-d- as an extension? Perhaps the Germanic strong verbs with extensions, e.g. *geutan, are examples of such verbs? Does Latin have other examples after consonants or vowels other than n?
Andrew
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