From: Piotr Gasiorowski
Message: 43080
Date: 2006-01-24
> 1. Peter Schrijver agrees with C. Watkins that Latin /molere/,*wemh1-o: > *wemo: > vomo: is regular (*e > o after *w or *l if followed
> /sonere/, /vomere/, /tonere/ reflect original *melH-, *swenH-, *wemH-,
> *tenH-. While I agree that the Sanskrit correspondences do suggest the
> presence of a laryngeal after the resonants, what I don't understand is
> why the sequences *melH- etc. should become /mol/- etc. rather than
> /mel/- etc. (especially in the case of the nasals). What sound law
> explains this? And also, what explains the /a/ of Lithuanian /malti
> /and Gothic and OHG /malan/? Was o-grade possible in the present of
> some thematic verbs, and does this explain /molere/ and perhaps the
> others? What about Germanic class VI and VII verbs - did some of these
> have o-grade, or did they mostly have *a or *h2e or *H or other?
> Lat. so- is regular as well (<soror, somnus, socer> etc.), so inLatin the reflexes of *swe- are always ambiguous; however, <sona:re> and
> 2. I didn't know that the vocalic laryngeals did not becomeSuch examples are hard to find, since most of the relevant forms have
> respectively /o/ or/a/ in Slavic and Baltic. What are the Slavic and
> Baltic reflexes of vocalic laryngeals, e.g. in words similar to *dHtos,
> *dhHtos, *stHtos, etc.?