--- alexandru_mg3 <
alexandru_mg3@...> wrote:
> >
> > GK: Your hypothesis makes no sense to me. Why
> > should Romanian rhotacism derive from Iranians
> when
> > there is no sign of it in Slavic, which had far
> more
> > intense relations with these tribes (up to the
> > adoption of the "god" word) than the
> proto-Romanians?
> >
>
> George, I don't think that the Slavs around Kiev
> were in a deep
> contact with the Scythians or Sarmatians ...in any
> case Herodotus (that
> talked alot about the peoples of Olbia), Strabo
> etc...didn't talk at
> all about this...
****GK: Well then think again. Strabo knew very little
about this area, as he states himself. Herodotus would
not have spoken of "Slavs" (nor of "Romanians" (:=)).
He did however have much to say about the Neuri
(Baltoslavs/Balts and Slavs). The southeastern portion
of the Neuri [between Boh /Bog/and
Prypjat'/Pripet/(which developed into the historical
Slavs some centuries later)was very much a part of the
classical Scythian realm, as a component of the
Aukhata region. That is when they absorbed massive
Scythian influences (including the "god" word.
Scythians were a gold-crazy and wealth-crazy people,at
least their aristocracies, and this "rubbed off" on
the proto-Slavs). And intimate contacts with various
Sarmatian tribes is also demonstrated
archaeologically. As mentioned, a contact much more
intense than that of the Iranians with the
proto-Romanians...****
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