Dear Cybalist-members
The forms of the Latin gerund and gerundive seem quite alike and thus
I would assume that they somehow have a common origen, but at the same
time they have quite different meanings and I don't find it readily
apparent how those meanings (one passive, one active) have developed
from the same form. I've searched a bit but haven't really been able
to find anything on the matter, so I'm hoping that someone here in
this learned forum may be able to tell me how it all fits together.
--
Venlig hilsen / Sincerely
Rasmus Underbjerg Pinnerup
<
http://home1.inet.tele.dk/hobbes/>