From: mkelkar2003
Message: 41896
Date: 2005-11-08
>not
> Francesco Brighenti wrote:
> > --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "mkelkar2003" <smykelkar@...> wrote:
> >
> >> As always non-linguistic evidence is the ultimate > adjudicator of
> > the matter. All I can say is that genetic evidence > points to a flow
> > of humans from the Indian subcontinent to the north > not the other
> > way round.
> >
> > How many tens of thousand years ago did this genetic flow occur?
> >
> > Francesco
>
> Francesco, it seems Mr Kelkar is at least partly right and there are
> thousandhow
> of years ago, but some hundred of years. Forgot the gypsies? How could
> you? :-)
> OK, the only bad thing here is that the linguistic influence of gypsies
> plays no big role on
> another IE languages but since there is a migration out of India in
> medieval times,
> one can consider anything one wants, including earlier migrations and
> all the changes
> which keeps Indic languages isolated by European IE languages should
> have happened
> after these ancient migrations. OK, that should be probabilities.
> Reverting to a seriously meant consideration, my question here is in
> farregarding
> do Romanes and Sinti languages match the actual Indic languages from
> point of view of
> the phonetic aspect. The comparation appears to be interesting
> the lexicalfrom
> data as well since even if the Sinti and Roma loaned a lot of words
> the peoplelexical
> they are living within or lived with, the core components of the
> appears to remainNo is ever going to answer these questions. So don't hold your breath.
> their own . I am not sure on the morphological aspect of the language,
> in how far these
> languages have been affected by the languages around them.
>
> Alex