From: mkelkar2003
Message: 41818
Date: 2005-11-06
>These kinds of questions start arising when one starts treating PIE as
>
>
> --- mkelkar2003 <smykelkar@...> wrote:
>
> > "The model presented in Figure 1 may not be
> > interepreted to mean that
> > the Russian language was introduced into Russia by a
> > group of Indians
> > who invaded or migrated north! The present authors
> > believe that there
> > is no way to scientifically test such a claim.
>
>
> It
> > just means that
> > these languages share something in common through
> > proto-Vedic and the
> > larger Eurasiatic family (Kalyanaraman and Kelkar
> > 2005, p. 62)."
>
> ****GK: Isn't it simpler and more correct to claim
> that Russian and "Indian" share something in common
> through PIE?
> the IE component of "proto-Vedic" which somehowYou probably mean the E component not the IE component. To use the
> wandered northward, leaving the others behind.****
> >That it DEFINITELY does. One can look at gene markers through a
> > The model we present in Fig 1 p. 63 is as
> > unfalsiable as the current
> > consensus tree. As always non-linguistic evidence
> > is the ultimate
> > adjudicator of the matter. All I can say is that
> > genetic evidence
> > points to a flow of humans from the Indian
> > subcontinent to the north
> > not the other way round.
>
> *****GK: So "genetic evidence" as you understand it
> contradicts the verifiable "flow of humans" from the
> north into the Indian subcontinent in historical
> times?...*****
>
>
>
>
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