Re: *H2kous- ‘to hear, feel’

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Abdullah Konushevci
<akonushevci@...> wrote:

> > > 1. Hinje se të mos FLERË as të mos e marë gjumi kush ty ruon

(Ad

> > > sextam X, pp. 19,)
> > >
> > > 2. E aj të SHPËRBLERË Israelnë n gjithë së këqiasht. (Ad
> > completorum
> > > XIII, pp.29)
> > >
> > > 3. N. e aj atë të SHPJERË mbë mishërier të Bagmit shenjt tat.
> > > (Exorcista Cathecuminorum, XXIV, pp. 73)

> [B]e sure that these verbs used in conjunctive in function of
> infinitive are pure Tosk phenomenon.
> I will come back with enumerues other examples, where subjunctive

is used

> instead of infinitive.
> Usual form of third sentence would be: 2. E aj ME SHPËRBLYEMUN

Israelnë n

> gjithë së këqiasht. (Ad completorum XIII, pp.29) or 3. N. e aj atë

ME

> SHPUEMUN mbë mishërier të Bagmit shenjt tat. (Exorcista

Cathecuminorum,

> XXIV, pp. 73). Nevertheless, I must consult also original.

What do you mean by "in function of infinitive"? I don't know for
the third example which I cannot check, but the two first examples
translate Greek futures (possibly via a Latin version): ou
nustáksei 'he will not drowse' (Psalm 121, 4); kaì autòs lutró:setai
tòn Israe:l 'and he will redeem Israel' (Psalm 129, 8). It would
seem that <të> is used equal to Modern <do të> before the
subjunctive to express the future. Is that correct?

Jens