From: Brian M. Scott
Message: 40482
Date: 2005-09-24
> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, mkapovic@... wrote:German certainly has [?], but does it actually have /?/? It
>> Laryngeals have, unlike the "uvulars", as we all know,
>> left many many indirect traces - beginning with the
>> prothetic vowels in Greek, the Balto-Slavic accentuation,
>> the vowel colouring (*h2e > *h2a has no exceptions,
>> unlike the supposed *qe > *qa) etc. However, there are
>> also direct traces - _h_ in Anatolian from *h2 and
>> probably *h3, #h- in Armenian from *h2- and *h3- and,
>> according to Beekes, te glottal stop in Gatha Avestan.
> And how about German /?/?