--- In
cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "Richard Wordingham"
<richard.wordingham@...> wrote:
> What's wrong with the alternative explanation that the plural of
> "heure" is "z'heure"? The problem then arises that the /z/ ought
to
> be part of the preceding word in writing, whence 'quatres' etc.
If we are to relate this whole discussion to Cybalist's purpose, I
have the following question to the Celtologs:
Isn't this tendency of transferring the flexion to the beginning of
the word inducing to us a thought of a Celtic substratum (I've asked
this before concerning 'zieuter')?
For instance take the initial flexion of 'head' in Irish:
a ceann "her head" (c = k),
a cheann "his head" (ch = ty. ch),
a gceann "their head" (ge = g)
depending on the fact that the possessive pronoun a once
ended in 1) a vowel, 2) -s, 3) -m (-n).
Lars