satem?
From: tgpedersen
Message: 39505
Date: 2005-08-04
dík, dis´ás, digbhís. From PIE *deik'-. Why do they call Sanskrit
satem, when it behaves like that?
Personally I think (again) that PIE *k' and *kW (mutatis mutandis for
the voiceds and voiced aspirates) were alternating *k/c^ and *kW/k
depending on the environment, and plain *k was non-alternating and
appeared in loans. Now this behaviour on the part of Sanskrit
strengthens my suspicion.
Torsten