From: Richard Wordingham
Message: 39367
Date: 2005-07-22
> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "Richard Wordingham"The three vowels would be the remains of pre-PIE **a, **i, **u, kept
> <richard.wordingham@...> wrote:
>
> > Why does one need trios of resonants if there be only one laryngeal?
> > Why can't one just have three varieties of 'furtive vowel'? The
> > varying developments of British English _secretary_ to, for example,
> > /'sekritri/ and /'sek&tri/ spring to mind as an example of how varied
> > developments may be. I'm still not persuaded that Patrick's basic
> > thesis is disprovable within non-Anatolian Indo-European - it struck
> > me as unfalsifiable. If R.hx could become RVhx, why couldn't there
> > always have been a vowel there?
>
> What would trigger the three furtive vowels and cause them to be
> different? Three different laryngeals.
> The presumed furtive vowels doI don't think there is any problem with the maintenance of the
> not always stand where the full-grade vowel was. The schwas form
> position in the Rigveda: savitar- is scanned savHitar-, duhitá: is
> scanned duhHita:. Thus one cannot just leave out the laryngeal and
> have only a prop-vowel.
> Thecolorations were effected.
> three Greek colours of syllabic resonants followed by laryngeals
> present the same oppositions of coloration as the laryngeals had when
> they coloured adjacent /e/ in a prestage of PIE, That certainly
> indicates that the laryngeals were still there in the relevant post-
> PIE linguistic stage when the specifically Greek sonorant