From: Patrick Ryan
Message: 39293
Date: 2005-07-18
----- Original Message -----From: Miguel CarrasquerSent: Sunday, July 17, 2005 1:25 PMSubject: Re: [tied] Re: Short and long vowels<snip>
> ***
> Patrick:
>
> Why did you delete my question without addressing it? Because you cannot answer it?
>
> I will try again:
>
> What is the difference between what you have written above and:
>
> All *& before the stress-accent give Old Indian -i-.
I still don't see why "before the stress accent" is in any
way relevant. Yes, all vocalized laryngeals merge as /i/ in
Vedic, regardless of the position of the stress.***Patrick:The 'laryngeals' of which we have been speaking are positioned directly before the stress-accent.I was trying to moderate the scope of the claim I am making.If all vocalized 'laryngeals' merge as /i/ in Vedic (with the exception I mentioned of dha:ta), with what justification can you label them *&1, *&2, *&3? Would not simply *& do?***
> ***
>
>
> >in other words, the peculiar treatment of *o ceased to be operational.
>
> In other words, since neither *a, nor *e, nor *o give Vedic
> /i/, "put", "stood" and "given" did not contain PIE *a, *e
> or *o.
>
> ***
> Patrick:
>
> How the laryngealists love circles!
And how the anti-laryngealists love epicycles!***Patrick:I am NOT an anti-laryngealist!!! Have you not read what I have written???Did I not reconstruct *dheH- as the basis of *dhe:-.Is *H a 'laryngeal' or does it have to have a number to so qualify?***
> What leads you to believe that the zero-grade of PIE *e:, *a:, and *o: in Old Indian is *e, *a, and *o?
*You* said that, for Greek.
***Patrick:Well, the last time I checked, Greeks were not Old Indians even Old Greeks.Now I will ask you again, what proof do you have that PIE *e:, *a:, and *o:, when zero-graded, could ever become /e/, /a/, or /o/ in Old Indian even transitorily?***