From: Richard Wordingham
Message: 39290
Date: 2005-07-18
> Let's see if I can understand what Patrick is trying to convey:Patrick:
>
> 1) In general, pre-PIE short *e, *a and *o (or some similar trio of
> vowels) merged. However, the distinctions were preserved next to
> laryngeals.
>
> 2) The zero grades from *eH, *aH and *oH were extra-short vowels *e_X,
> *a_X, *o_X. Compensatory lengthening need not have happened here.
> (Incidentally, is plain *eH > e: necessarily PIE? It may be common
> recorded IE, but that is a different matter.)
>
> 3) In Greek, the extra short vowels became normal short vowels.
> Elsewhere they merged to give what used to be seen as PIE *&, which
> merged with *i in Indo-Iranian and with *a elsewhere.
>
> Is Point 2 so incredible?
> Personally, Point 2 does not bother me. It results in much thesame as I have postulated.
> But Point 3 strikes me as a step backward. I am trying to explain_why_ we have specifically <i> in Old Indian.
> Merge with /i/, why not with /u/? See my point?Merger with /i/ is a common enough fate for a schwa - think of the